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WGU Financial Management VBC1 Sample Questions (Q80-Q85):

NEW QUESTION # 80
What distinguishes a subordinated debenture from a senior debenture?

Answer: A

Explanation:
A subordinated debenture differs from a senior debenture primarily in the priority of claims. Both are typically unsecured debt instruments, but subordinated debentures rank below senior debentures in the event of liquidation or bankruptcy. This means holders of senior debt are paid before holders of subordinated debt if the firm's assets are distributed. Because subordinated debenture holders face greater default risk, they usually require a higher yield as compensation. This ranking feature is a key concept in capital market theory because the risk level of a security affects investor required return and the issuer's cost of capital. Choice A is the opposite of the correct answer. Choice C is incorrect because a debenture is generally unsecured, and subordination does not mean collateral is provided. Choice D is unrelated to the distinction between the two instruments. Financial managers must understand debt priority because it influences financing choices, covenant design, investor demand, and interest cost. Therefore, B is correct because subordination means a lower claim on assets and cash flows relative to senior debtholders.
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NEW QUESTION # 81
In the statement of cash flows, how should an increase in accounts receivable be treated when calculating cash collected from customers?

Answer: A

Explanation:
When calculating cash collected from customers, an increase in accounts receivable must be subtracted from revenue. This is because revenue includes both cash sales and credit sales, but cash collected reflects only the amount actually received during the period. If accounts receivable increased, it means some portion of reported sales has not yet been collected in cash. Therefore, that increase must be deducted to convert accrual- based revenue into a cash basis amount. The general relationship is: Cash Collected from Customers = Sales Revenue # Increase in Accounts Receivable, assuming no other unusual adjustments. This treatment is important in preparing or interpreting the operating section of the statement of cash flows, especially under the direct method. Financial management relies on this distinction because firms may appear profitable on the income statement while still facing liquidity pressure if collections are slow. The other answer choices are incorrect because accounts receivable relates to sales revenue, not cost of goods sold. Therefore, A is the correct answer because subtracting the increase in receivables properly adjusts reported revenue to the actual cash collected from customers during the accounting period.
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NEW QUESTION # 82
How does the global bond market impact the strategies of multinational corporations?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multinational corporations (MNCs) often seek the lowest-cost and most flexible sources of long-term financing. The global bond market expands their choices beyond domestic lenders and investors, enabling firms to issue debt in multiple countries, currencies, and structures (fixed vs. floating rates, maturities, secured vs. unsecured, and different covenant packages). This broad access can reduce the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) if foreign markets provide lower yields, deeper investor demand, or better terms for the issuer's credit profile. Global issuance can also support operational needs: an MNC earning revenues in euros or yen may issue bonds in those currencies to create a natural hedge, matching debt service with foreign-currency cash inflows and reducing exchange-rate exposure. However, the global bond market does not remove currency risk automatically (so B is incorrect), nor does it guarantee fixed interest rates (D is incorrect). While domestic issuance remains important, global markets increase strategic flexibility, allowing firms to optimize capital structure, diversify funding sources, manage refinancing risk, and tailor financing to geographic cash flows-core themes in international financial management.


NEW QUESTION # 83
What is the dividend yield of a stock that pays annual dividends of $4 per share and has a current market price of $80?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Dividend yield measures the cash return an investor receives relative to the stock's current market price. It is calculated as Annual Dividend ÷ Market Price per Share. In this case, the dividend yield is
$4 ÷ $80 = 0.05, or 5%. Dividend yield is a key valuation metric, particularly for income-oriented investors, as it indicates the immediate cash return from holding the stock, excluding capital gains.
Financial managers monitor dividend yield to understand how dividend policy affects investor appeal and market valuation. Option B correctly reflects this calculation and interpretation.


NEW QUESTION # 84
How does the use of historical returns to estimate the cost of common equity differ from the Gordon growth model?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The historical-return approach differs from the Gordon growth model because it is based primarily on past stock performance rather than on expected future dividends and growth. Under the historical-return method, analysts estimate the cost of common equity by examining the returns investors earned on the firm's stock over prior periods. The Gordon growth model, by contrast, is a forward-looking dividend-based approach that estimates the cost of equity as the expected dividend yield plus the constant growth rate of dividends. Choice D is correct because it captures the defining feature of the historical-return method. Choice B and choice C describe the Gordon growth model rather than the historical-return approach. Choice A is more closely associated with CAPM, which uses market risk and beta. Financial management often uses multiple methods to estimate the cost of equity because each approach has limitations. Historical returns can be useful as a reference point, but they may not reflect current risk or investor expectations. The Gordon growth model can be useful for stable dividend-paying firms, but it is less suitable for firms without predictable dividends.
Therefore, D correctly explains the main difference between these two valuation methods.
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NEW QUESTION # 85
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